A Quick Theological Question

I seem to recall that, during the David Jenkins/Bishop of Durham debates some years ago concerning the nature of the resurrection of Christ that somebody made the point that had the resurrection been merely spiritual, the human physical part would have remained unredeemed of sin. It was important for the event that both flesh and spirit were redeemed by God in this way.

Given that Christ was celibate and never married, does this mean that estate of marriage has not been actually physically blessed by God in the same way?

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